/u/Aettlaus's posts in /r/askhistorians
When reading about the Roman and Greek states, the Iranian empires (Achaemenid, Arsacid, Sassanid) are, sometimes, portrayed as a hindrance and/or nuisance in the flow of trade between the west and east; does this have any merit?
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Were Greek city-states under Roman (before the west-east split) rule allowed to field armies, or do any combat with neighboring city-states?
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Did the ancient Romans see themselves as having always been civilized? Or did they recognize having been, "as barbaric as their neighbors", at one point?
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Besides defending against foreign threats or rebellions, what would, in the Roman Empire, cause the "federal"/central authority to intervene in a province? Would for example a minor (not affecting the entire province) famine be left without any extra resources diverted?
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Did the other subjugated peoples of the Achaemenid Empire (specifically the Egyptians and Babylonians) hear about the Persian failures in the Greco-Persian Wars? Did they even know or care about the Persian being in Greece at all?
5 upvotes
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