/u/Betrix5068's posts in /r/askhistorians
I often hear that during WW1 the German trenches were noticeably higher quality than the entente ones and even had some luxuries. Is this true and if so did this actually benefit the Germans in a meaningful way.
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I was watching the Rhine podcast recently and in it the Romans were referred to as seeing themselves as a "master race". Is this an accurate representation of Roman self perception?
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In WW1 Denmark received territory from Germany despite being a neutral country. Why was this, and why in WW2 did many nations such as the Netherlands not receive similar treatment(the Netherlands for example).
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How did the various mesoamerican militaries terms operate of equipment, tactics, organization, recruitment, etc
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How did the Germanic tribes come from viewing Rome as their eternal enemy and Caesar demonic to seeing themselves as Romans and styling their highest office as Kaiser?
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Once the roman empire pushed the British frontier north to the Antonine wall how did they intend to fortify the easily traversal Estuary just east. Were mass garrisoning of coastal regions common in the roman empire or were even relatively small bodies of water sufficient for preventing invasion?
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I was watching the Rhine podcast recently and in it the Romans were referred to as seeing themselves as a "master race". Is this an accurate representation of Roman self perception?
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