/u/ChubbyHistorian's posts
Are there any good cultural/social histories of Greater Yankeedom (the Puritans and their descendants throughout the Northern USA)? Especially interested in the 19th century.
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Apparently recent archaeological evidence indicates that rising sea levels/salination were a major 'push' factor in the Anglo-Saxon migrations. Is this true? What books do a good job incorporating recent archaeology (past 5-10 years) into history?
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A book I’m reading has medieval Japanese monks being at least vaguely aware of Ashoka. How much could they have known about the political history of the Indian subcontinent?
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How much do we know about the transmission of Roman non-fiction between initial composition and the early middle ages? Tacitus' "Annals" was found in two monasteries 1500 km apart—do we have any ideas whether they were privately replicated or "publicly" published? What about Cicero's letters?
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What are good history books which analyze the compatibility of different modes and relations of production in the 19th & 20th century—namely, the ability of slaves and other unfree labor to resist in industrial contexts?
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Is there a consensus that Greece actually hit a "Malthusian Ceiling" during the Archaic Period? (i.e., that people would literally starve without out-migration) For that matter, are there any regions of the ancient [c. 3000 BCE - 500 CE] Mediterranean world which hit one?
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Why did the far-right “6 février” coup attempt cause the government to shift right? I would have expected a failed assault to isolate and weaken the responsible fraction.
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Prussia joined the War of Spanish Succession in exchange for voluntary recognition by the HRE that it was kingdom-ranked. Was it a realistic option to join the other side to try and force recognition instead?
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Why is the last emperor of Austria usually called "Franz Joseph I"? Was there actually another "Franz Joseph" later on or is it just a convention for the region?
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In English, some inflections are written as part of the word (“call” -> “called”), while others are separated (“to call”). When did these become standardized? In earlier written English (including Anglo-Saxon), did we see variations (e.g. “tocall” or “call ed”) in what was considered its own word?
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