/u/Crk416's posts in /r/AskHistorians
I’ve often heard that by 1453 the fall of the Byzantine Empire was inevitable and even if they had repulsed the Turks the city would have just fallen later. At what point did the Empire go from a precarious but still viable state to one that was essentially doomed?
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How would opposing armies in a Roman or Byzantine civil war tell one another apart without accidentally killing their comrades?
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To what extent did the Byzantines understand they were cultural different from their ancient Roman counterparts?
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Why were the Arabs able to so easily defeat the Roman and Persian Empires, when those empires had for the most part been unable to decisively defeat one another?
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Why was Anatolia Turkified rather than the steppe invaders “going native” and adopting the dominant culture as they did in many other similar situations?
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This map dipicts the Eastern Roman Empire controling a small portion of southern Italy in the year 500, is there any truth to this claim?
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