/u/Diestormlie's posts in /r/AskHistorians
A recent lecture on my University course posited that (Christian) Pre-Modern Europe had... 'Institutionalised'? Exceptions for 'Fools' and other people that today we'd recognise as having Intellectual Disabilities or Developmental Disorders. To what extent can we say this was the case?
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Dolmen seem to have been found the world over. Do we know if the Dolmen was 'invented' once and spread of if it was invented multiple times?
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To what extent did the Norman Conquest effect English Towns & Cities, and especially the City of London?
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