/u/Diestormlie's posts in /r/askhistorians
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A work of Alternate History I read revolving around Revolutionary activity in the 1830s UK had their Chartists including the abolishment of the Common Law within their demands. Is this Historical, and if so what drove Anti-Common-Law Sentiment in the period?
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I've heard the medieval (well, I believe in a specifically Medieval Catholic context) era as being one of "Institutional Anarchy." What does this concept entail and to what extent *was* Medieval Europe in a state of Institutional Anarchy?
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It is early 1600s England; I, an English man, have just accused a woman of being a Witch. Whom am I likely to be accusing, and why? How do I officially accuse them? What happens now?
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Alternate phrasing: How much social significance did the Ancient Greeks/Romans attach to female virginity?
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