/u/Dinocrocodile's posts in /r/askhistorians
In colonial Latin America racial distinctions were strongly tied to social status and heritage. When did this change into a common "Hispanic" or "Latin" identity?
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In ancient Rome, concubine was a kind of tolerable illegal marriage between individuals who would be otherwise unable to marry. Did this also include foreigners or was concubinage only allowed to freedmen and former prostitutes who wanted to marry citizens?
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It seems like overtly religious tattoos are almost a symbol of gang culture in the US/Latin America, when did this come to be?
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How valuable are comparisons between Medieval/Ancient events and modern colonialism? Does the comparison cause more confusion and false equivalency than anything else?
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