/u/Frigorifico's posts in /r/AskHistorians
The indoeuropean heritage is undeniable in Europe, India, Iran, and many other countries, but when I look at the dates, the Indoeuropeans arrived in these places surprisingly "late", how come their culture became so influential so fast?
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Why do polytheistic religions never try to convert other people but monotheistic religions almost always do?
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Is it a coincidence that Sun Tzu and Machiavelli titled their books about strategy "The art of war" of was Machiavelli somehow aware of Sun Tzu's book?
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Do historians who study dead languages like Sumerian or Akkadian ever get to the point of being fluent and be able to have conversations in those languages with other historians?
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Many Chinese legends mention magical pills, like the White Snake or Journey to the West, but I've never seen magic pills in stories from Europe, India or anywhere else. Why? Did other cultures not have pills? Did they not use them in their stories for some reason?
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