/u/Frigorifico's posts in /r/askhistorians
In the story of Moses the pharaoh is just called "Pharaoh." How come now popular media have come to identify him with Ramses II?
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I had heard that Ted Kaczynski's essay was a work of philosophy tainted by his crimes, but I read it and it sounds like typical right wing propaganda, am I missing something here?
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There seems to be a pattern of Germany and Spain becoming allies to the dismay of France: Charles V becoming the HRE, when Bismarck tried to put a Prussian in the spanish throne, and Hitler and Franco, what is the reason for this pattern?, is it really a pattern?
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