/u/Hoihe's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why do eastern and ancient western religions seem opposed to the notion of continuity of existence and identity - that is, retaining memories, individuality and identity?
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The vikings were rather hygenic compared to at least the English at their time. But did scandinaivans bathe more often as well during the High medieval period?
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In europe where primogeniture extended to peasants and serfs, what options did the non-inheriting sons have to make a living?
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Could the history of Hungary (and other Warsaw Pact countries) be studied through the lens of Colonial relations?
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How much of our perception of pre-modern status of children is painted by only having sources for nobility and rich burghers? Do we have any contrary sources to the idea that parents did not recognize their children as people until they were 7?
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When did nobility and well to do people start sailing for fun or pure science instead of economic reasons?
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