/u/Hyo38's posts in /r/askhistorians
I recall hearing that after the Romans left Britain that the city of Londinium was mostly abandoned and that it wasn't until the Viking age that it was reinhabited, is there truth to that claim?
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Why didn't the execution of Charles I not provoke a response from the European monarchies the way the execution of Louis XVI did?
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Did the losses among the nobility of France after the Battle of Agincourt help lead to the centralization of France and rise in the power of the Monarchy?
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What made the Imperial German Stormtroopers so effective in their assaults when the Western Front had been stalemated for so long?
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