/u/JJVMT's posts in /r/askhistorians
I understand that certain high-prestige professionals like lawyers and doctors weren't always educated and trained at universities. How and why do professions become "universitized"?
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When (and why, if possible) did the gothic/batcave and industrial scenes become largely merged into a single subculture?
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One of my old history professors claimed that some prominent Florentines felt slighted that Dante didn't think they were important enough to be included in his vision of hell. Is that true?
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In 17th/18th-century Sweden, people apparently believed that worshippers of pre-Christian Nordic gods held sacrificial rites at the Trollkyrka ("Troll church") rock formation. Did the existence of such pagan holdouts have any basis in fact, or is this the 17th c. version of the 1980's Satanic panic?
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How, when, and why did the vest (waistcoat in UK English) cease to be an essential part of men's suits? (2nd attempt)
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What's the origin of the myth of the "Spanish lisp" (i.e. the myth that Spaniards pronounce s and z/ce/ci differently in imitation of some Medieval king with a lisp)?
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I understand that, until fairly recently, European kings were educated almost exclusively by private tutors and generally didn't attend universities. When did it become customary for them to attend universities?
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Mafia ties have been insinuated as the reason for Mario Cuomo's decision not to run for president in '84 and '88. Is there any proof of this at all? If not, then why did the most charismatic and competitive Democratic politician of the Reagan years simply sit it out?
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