/u/JJVMT's posts
Anglophone countries think of North and South America as two continents, while Hispanophone ones think of them as one. When and why did this divergence arise? Does it predate the Panama Canal?
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I've heard that, in Spain's New World colonies, many indigenous converts would take the surname(s) of the priest who converted them, and that this is why there are so few indigenous surnames in Latin America today. Is there even a grain of truth in this?
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I am a professional translator. While translation in some form or another has surely existed as long as the multiplicity of human languages, how long has translation existed as its own profession?
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Given how the South is much more religious than the rest of the US today, what were Confederate attitudes toward separation of church and state like?
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In Canterbury, were there ever tensions between Continental Catholics making pilgrimages in veneration of Thomas Beckett and Anglican Cantuarian locals?
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How long has the stereotype that Southern Europeans are less disciplined and more emotional than Northern Europeans existed? Was the stereotype the opposite, for example, during Greco-Roman dominance or when Spain was the greatest power in Europe?
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I understand that some historians argue that 1700 rather than the more conventional cutoff of circa 1500 should be considered the end of the Middle Ages. Who are they and what is their argument?
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When did classes at Oxford and Cambridge cease to be taught in Latin and start to be taught in English?
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The Music Man is of course fictional, but was there a real moral panic about pool in the US in the early 20th c.? Also, was billiards seen as a wholesome game in contrast to pool?
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