/u/JJVMT's posts
[Education] At what point did British universities cease to use Latin as the language of instruction?
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What's the consensus on the acceptability (or lack thereof) of using the term "Victorian" for the history of non-British countries from 1837 to 1901? Is it considered bad practice to speak of "the Victorian U.S."? What about, say, "Victorian Spain" or "Victorian France"?
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My Mexican brother-in-law claims that purchasing political positions was a normal practice in colonial Spanish governance and that modern Mexican corruption is a survival of this. Is there any evidence that this is true?
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Speaking of education, when did English universities stop using Latin to teach classes unrelated to Latin language learning and start giving such classes in English?
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Was Vlad the Impaler's level of cruelty considered ordinary for his day? Wikipedia's article on Impalement suggests that this punishment was fairly common in Central and Eastern Europe back then, which would fit my understanding of the Late Middle Ages/Early Modern Era as a violent era in general.
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What's the history of the bullfighter's traje de luces? With its knee-breeches and high-cut jacket, I'm guessing it has its origins around the turn of the 19th century, right?
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Were John Calhoun's eyes considered to be as wild or crazy by his contemporaries as they are by the internet today?
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I recall that the translation of Socrates' Apology that I read in my first university philosophy class had S. invoking "God." Is this just a Christianized translation of "Zeus" or did he actually use some generic term for "God" (Theos?) and/or hold monotheistic beliefs centuries before Christ?
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During the last decade or two of the 18th century, was anyone (apart from Quakers, of course) still using "thee" and "thou" in ordinary speech?
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