/u/Jinglemisk's posts in /r/AskHistorians
When I look at the map of the Late Bronze Age, the Balkans for example don't seem populated at all. Were there tiny, independent clans of peoples living in these regions, or do we definitely know that these areas were uninhabited?
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Do we have any pre-modernity examples of voting systems where it was logistically ensured that even remote cities and towns (and not just the capital, e.g. Rome) got to vote via voting stations and "ballot-transfer-carriages" or something?
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I've recently learned that Ancient Greeks had no word for "authority". Did they have something at least similar to "auctoritas" or "imperium"? Did they ever adopt these Roman words in other contexts?
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Apart from things such as artillery advantage, military hierarchy/organisation and tactics like feigned retreat, were there any cases in which Ottoman commanders showed tactical prowess or deep strategic vision to defeat their enemies? I wonder more about pre 17th century but any answer is welcome.
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How did "Vikings" in Scandinavia adapt to the shift in their economics: Raids declined significantly after 11th century due to stronger continental powers. A great source of income and manpower must have diminished for them.
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In ancient democracies, many couldn't afford constantly travelling to the capital to take part in voting procedures. Do we know any solutions from the antiquity, such as long-distance signalling or escorted ballots, that tried to tackle this problem?
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I've read (linked below) that Carthage valued knowledge greatly, so much so that people published exploration or agriculture reports for free. Where can we trace this "publicity" of knowledge? Where can I read more about it?
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Apart from things such as artillery advantage, military organisation and tactics such as feigned retreat, were there any cases in which Ottoman commanders showed tactical prowess or strategic vision to defeat their enemies? I wonder more about pre 17th century but any answer is welcome.
4 upvotes
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