/u/LateNightPhilosopher's posts in /r/AskHistorians
How common was naval Impressment during the 17th-19th centuries, and why was it not considered a type of slavery?
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How much did Iberian de jure dominance over Southern Italy impact both regions culturally and politically?
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When and why did European kingdoms begin to transition from feudal style armies to professional standing militaries? Was this change slow and gradual over decades or did it happen over a relatively short period time?
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In high-late medieval Europe, what were the meaningful differences between the various ranks of landed nobility?
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How did the Tokugawa Shogunate manage to keep internal peace and control in Japan, given the warlike nature of the Daimyos and the previous Shogunate's inability to maintain order
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When and how did the Kingdom of France change from the weak and decentralized realm it was in the medieval era, into a beacon of Absolutism by the time of Louis XIV?
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When and why did culturally distinct pockets of Jewish population become scattered across an otherwise fanatically Christian Europe in the Middle Ages?
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