/u/Luftzig's posts in /r/AskHistorians
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Is the idea of "a common tongue" or "trade tongue" or any other such globally understood language which appears often in literature has any base in historic reality?
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Would a surgeon in early 19th century Muslim world know that they should wash their hands and sanitise their instruments before surgery?
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Did later Catholic heresies (Hussites, Protestants etc.) expressed their views on earlier heresies (e.g. Catharism, Arianism)? Did they reject them, sympathy with them, used them in their retoric, or anything at all?
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How, why and when the term "Western" came to denote European and North American cultures and polities?
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