/u/Mexi_dude's posts in /r/askhistorians
Former British Education Secretary recently claimed that military historian William Philpott has recast the Battle of the Somme as the precursor of allied victory. Is this reassessment fair?
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According to Wikipedia, Nazi Germany had a population of about 79 million people in their core territories by 1939. Why didn't they invade the USSR with more than just 3 million men?
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Excluding the constant possibility of nuclear war between the Warsaw Pact and NATO, the Irish situation, the constant Soviet suppression of Eastern Europe, and the Greco-Turkish conflicts, what was the closest post-war European nations came to declaring war on each other?
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Why didn't Austria experience insane revanchism like Germany did? ALSO, Did Austria have any reparations to pay?
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