/u/Obligatory-Reference's posts in /r/AskHistorians
In Victorian England, was there any intrinsic difference between a 'gentleman' and a 'commoner'? Would a 'commoner' who became wealthy be treated any differently than one who was born into money?
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There's a trope in fiction of a society with designated storytellers who were never allowed to be wrong (punishable by death, in some cases). Is there any historical precedent for this?
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Plutarch insinuated that Julius Caesar had seizures caused by epilepsy. At the time, would this have been recognized as a medical diagnosis, or some kind of religious/spiritual gift or curse, or something else?
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In "The Wicker Man" (1973) the protagonist discovers that the inhabitants of a remote Scottish island follow "pagan" beliefs (to the point of human sacrifice). Are there any modern cases of remote populations converting this way?
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