/u/Pashahlis's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why was the Hood until its sinking considered to be the Royal Navies pride and plagship when there were way better and more modern ships like the King George V class available?
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German battleships of WW1 and WW2 commonly have better armor and survivability than their counterparts in other nations attributed to them. How true is this and what "common characteristics" did ships of the French, Italian, British, American and Japanese navies have?
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Why were the borders drawn so different at the Congress of Vienna 1815 when it was supposed to be the "restoration of the old order"?
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When and how did straits like those of Gibraltar, Bosporus and Denmark become an unpassable obstacle for ships that were rejected passage?
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How did medieval money work, particularly in the HRE? Where could I get the local currency? Could I pay with non-local currency? How would the local currency get back to its locality? Where did all these small localities get their money from?
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Did the navies in both WW1 and WW2 have quite different design philosophies regarding their warships or were warships of the same class no matter the nation largely the same?
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How effective were late-WW2 infantry anti-tank weapons, such as the Bazooka, Panzerfaust and Panzerschreck? Furthermore, what was the reasoning behind the simultaneous production and usage of two radically different infantry anti-tank weapons by the Germans? Were they used differently doctrine-wise?
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Have there been other efforts since to unite South America or at least parts of it, after Simon Bolivar failed to do so?
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At the Battle of Jutland the German forces successfully sunk 3 battlecruisers while only losing 1 and a pre-dreadnought themselves, essentially proving that slowly reducing the RN's numerical advantage was possible. Why did they stop pursuing this strategy then?
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