/u/Pecuthegreat's posts
Given Slavery had fallen out of Favour in much of Europe through the middle ages, how did the Iberians and then the rest of the Colonial powers justify slavery.
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The Vedas are used to re-construct early Indian history but I personally haven't seen similarly done with the Avestas and related texts for Early Iranian history. Is there an reason for that and how can that be fixed?
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Were the metalsmiths and other craftsmen of Nomadic cultures like the Sythians settled in towns, part of specialized Nomadic bands or specialist within large groups/clans/bands (or whatever the right terminology is)
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