/u/Qweniden's posts in /r/askhistorians
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In the high middles ages it seems like towns such as Beaune and Dijon get royal charters to become self-governing. Once they received these royal charters were they completely free of control by dukes, barons or other lords?
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How widespread was peasants owning their own land during the Carolingian period? Was small-holding common or was it mostly landless peasants working someone else's land?
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Did the "german barbarians" in roman times speak the same or a similar language? Is there a linguistic family there?
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