/u/Sarsath's posts in /r/askhistorians
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Why didn't the Russian Empire expel its Jewish population like England did in 1290 and Spain in 1492?
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During his reign from 844 to 875, was Louis II of Italy referred to his Italian subjects as Luigi or did the name not exist yet?
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Did Christianity have anything to do with how the way that Roman busts of people were made starting in the 4th century?
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Was the real-life Hermann Fegelein like his Downfall-Parody counterpart, engaging in antics and whatnot?
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