/u/Seswatha's posts in /r/AskHistorians
I've read that the ulema (Islamic scholarly class) was independent to the historical state authorities of Islamic kingdoms and empires. But nowadays, they're often organs of the state or complicit in its oppression. When and how did states exert authority over the ulema?
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Are there any examples of popular independence revolts before the era of nationalism that had no or minimal religious motivations?
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Have any other countries historically lost as many people in a war as the USSR did, but come out of the war stronger than before like the USSR managed to do?
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How did the various Daimyo of Sengoku-era Japan publicly reconcile their constant betrayal of each other with the emphasis Japanese culture puts on loyalty?
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Why has Persia (Iran) seemingly declined in importance or prominence on the world-stage from antiquity?
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