/u/Seswatha's posts in /r/AskHistorians
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Were there instances of colonization during Antiquity that resembled English/American colonization of North America i.e. displacement/replacement/eradication of native populations?
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In Imperial Russia serfs managed their affairs communally while simultaneously being governed by nobles. So what sort of decisions were made by the serfs and which by the nobles? And what sort of disputes would be resolved within the village and which sort would be taken to the nobleman?
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Were Japanese officers in WW2 disproportionately derived from members of the former Samurai-class or was the samurai-ethos something that had taken hold among all the Japanese?
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At what point was it decided that the Dutch and Flemish weren't part of Germany or Germans? Or did proponents of German unification intend to annex them at some point?
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Why was legitimacy such a big deal for succession? In medieval Europe, could an unlegitimized bastards ever inherit? Did any unlegitimized bastards ever try to press claims to titles?
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Why was Albert Edward's affair with an actress such a concern for his parents Prince Albert and Queen Victoria?
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