/u/Shashank1000's posts in /r/askhistorians
Did Nazi Germany consciously embrace autarchy as an end out of itself or was it purely imposed on it by needs of war economy? How did international division of labor and world market fit within the schema of NSDAP thought? Did they plan to revive it in post-war world where they won?
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Did Leonid Brezhnev really made this statement - "You see, even in the jungles they want to live in Lenin's way!"? Or was this attributed to him?
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I read that Gopal Krishna Gokhale got the Irish Nationalist Alfred Weeb to serve as President of Indian National Congress in 1894. Was there any cooperation beyond this? How good were the relations between the people in Indian and Irish Independence Movement?
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A dissident Iraqi Journalist stated, "To become a member [of Baath Party] can take 10 years; once a member, you can never leave - except, maybe in a coffin" under Saddam Hussein. Is this true?
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Is it possible to compare the standard of living of common persons in Aztec Empire and Spain at the point of first contact between them? If yes, then which place was better?
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How accurate is the thesis popular among some Marxists that the World War 1 was the result of capitalist countries of Europe had run out of non-capitalist societies and territories to expand to necessitating a clash between the great capitalist powers?
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Did wage-labor and market for factors of production (land, means of production) exist in antiquity and early medieval society? Are there any readings/studies that measure its reach and describe its evolution (rise, fall etc.) ?
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