/u/Shashank1000's posts in /r/askhistorians
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Did something akin to 'simple commodity production' as described by Marx and Engels from which Capitalist production developed actually exist?
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How did the market economy of the Yugoslavian Socialist Republic differ from market economies in Western Europe?
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To what extent was Imperialism and active colonial policy by European great powers a necessary consequence and requirement of capitalist development? Is there any consensus amongst academics who study this on this topic?
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My friend claimed that the secularization of a family in Europe generally follows the pattern of woman leaving the religion and thus the husband and kids following suit and losing their faith (extended to society with this happening parallely) . Is this an accurate model?
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In India, the government under Indira Gandhi famously nationalised the largest private banks in 70's. Why was it not done in the previous 2 decades even though the Congress party ruled for that period? Was there any specific ideological evolution or was it due to necessity?
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In the 1992 US elections, Ross Perot famously did very well for a third-party candidate because of skepticism of NAFTA. But he was much less successful in 1996 and Reform Party had no impact in 2000. Why did the issue dissipate? Did voters and workers accept free trade?
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Why did North African nations never develop massive colonial empires like their Western European neighbours?
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