/u/SomeAnonymous's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why does continental Europe have a very strong culture of bilingualism? How has this changed over time? Furthermore, why does the UK not have anything like this?
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Grade I listed buildings are, at least ostensibly, some of the most restricted buildings for redevelopment or changes. How, then, are some of them able to be completely redeveloped for an entirely different function?
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