/u/TheGreenAlchemist's posts in /r/AskHistorians
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Is it true that the Aztec and Inca Empires could have easily defeated their respective conquistadors if they stayed united and had not suffered from tributaries defecting to the Spanish?
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It's said the book of Isaiah was expanded long after writing with new 'prophecies' of events that happened in between. Who would have had the authority to do this, and how was the original version suppressed?
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"Narco Saint" Jesus Malverde became widely revered within 50 years of his "death" but is said to be entirely fictional. How could this happen? And is it possible the same is the case for other historical figures?
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