/u/TheHondoGod's posts in /r/askhistorians
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How did early writing systems transition from cuneiform and hieroglyphics to alphabets like writing systems?
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In Asterix and the Mansions of the Gods, the Romans try to sneakily conquer the Gaulish tribe by exposing them to ‘superior’ roman culture and letting them convert themselves. Was this a real tactic, and was it done on purpose or more of a side effect?
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