/u/The_Manchurian's posts in /r/askhistorians
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Fascism was most successful in European nations that had been created in the 19th century due to Nationalism. It was least successful in countries that had been formed by Royal control/expansion several hundred years before. Is this causation or just correlation?
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How did life change for Iberian peasants with the replacement of the Visigoths with new Muslim rulers? And how integrated was this new regime with the wider Ummayed Caliphate?
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How recognisable would the beliefs/socio-culture of 21st century evangelicals be to an early 19th century evangelical?
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The theory of the "sick man of Europe" seems to be mostly discredited. But the Ottoman Empire in the 19th and early 20th century seems pretty far behind European powers. So what did happen?
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