/u/The_Manchurian's posts in /r/askhistorians
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Many parts of the American constitution have been amended over the years. The 2nd amendment has not. Has anyone ever tried? Is there something (constitutionally) special about the 2nd amendment that means it can't be changed?
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I've seen again that Feudalism was a massive simplification, and that each country in Europe did things a bit differently. What's the best way to explain 1066-1547 English politico-economic system and evolution specifically?
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In 409AD, Pricus Attus agreed to be baptised so he could be Emperor. Were Pagans banned from being Emperor at this time?
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Pope Gelasius I (d. 496) apparently condemned women officiating at altars. Can anyone explain more about this?
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When did the Western and Eastern European churches begin to be referred to as "Catholic" and "Orthodox" respectively?
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In the classical period how much Greek influence was there on the areas that today are Albania, Bulgaria and the FYRoM?
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