/u/This_The_Last_Time's posts in /r/askhistorians
England tried to rule over France in The Hundred Years War. Was it a realistic endeavour in any way (considering geography, population/nobility sentiments, historical precedents), or a vanity project doomed to fail?
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After WWI several East-European countries warred against each other, apparently over border-disputes. What exactly happened and why this seems to be largely forgotten?
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Is there a historical reason why paper (for wiping) and paper (for writing) share a common word in so many languages?
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In 1939, both UK and France had a deal to aid Poland, in case Germany invades them. Yet, when the day came, they did almost nothing besides declaring war. Why?
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