/u/TirousDidAThing's posts in /r/askhistorians
Almost all sources we have from ancient Rome are written by men, however, a vary small few from women do exist. Given this... you know... what did they say?
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Before computers made it easy, how did Japanese typewriters account for Kanji? Did they even try? Or did they just write everything in Kana? What did Japanese typewriters even look like?
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In classical Greece, was there solidarity between the various Hellenic cities that permitted them some kind of decent treatment (however marginal) that wasn't extended to non-Hellens?
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The Romans, like most ancient cultures, were incredibly conservative and valued sexual modesty, especially among their women. The prior notwithstanding, were there any ways in which their definition of "modesty" diverged noticeably from ours?
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Do we know if the threat of being conquered/pillaged by foreign armies brought commoners in the medieval age to fear spring/summer over autumn/winter?
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I understand the way ancient Roman families worked, the whole paterfamilias thing. However, can someone explain to mean the classical Athenian equivalent? How did their families work?
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What series of events brought about the modern practice of having such strict rules when it comes to who can/can't enter a country? Is this strictness historically common?
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