/u/Velteau's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why did certain regions of Europe under Ottoman rule, like Albania and Bosnia, see so many more conversions to Islam than others, like Greece and Serbia?
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I often see companies or projects claiming they are "making history" with whatever product or initiative. For how long has the concept of "making history" been employed in some form?
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If the treaty of Tordesillas had been in favour of Portugal instead of Spain, would the majority of the Americas have become Portuguese-speaking instead?
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Why didn't the United States use the threat of nuclear war to prevent other powers from developing their own nuclear weapons back when it held a monopoly on them?
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I’ve been taught that Great Britain participated in the Coalition Wars against France because it was in British interest to promote a “backward” form of government abroad so they could have an administrative edge in Europe. Is this true?
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Did the Portuguese had a contingency plan in case the nobility didn’t get to Brazil during the Napoleonic Wars?
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