/u/VicomteChateaubriand's posts in /r/askhistorians
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Why are Protestant parts of Germany and the Netherlands sliding noticeably faster towards atheism in the last 150 years compared to their Catholic counterparts?
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Were English Puritans really against art? How did Calvinist rejection of religious imagery extend to secular art and the Dutch Golden Age?
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Why is there such a strong correlation between parts of Germany with Protestant majority and percentage of votes given to Nazi Party in November 1932?
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Why is there almost a 100% correlation between Protestant districts and Nazi majority votes during the last several free elections in Germany?
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Why is there almost a 100% correlation between Protestant districts and Nazi majority votes during the rise of the Nazi party?
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Why are Protestant parts of Germany and the Netherlands sliding noticeably faster towards atheism in the last 150 years than their Catholic counterparts?
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