/u/Vladith's posts in /r/AskHistorians
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In the A Song of Ice and Fire books, by George R. R. Martin, one culture has been ruling another for at least 2,000 years, but the subjugated culture still thrives. Has this happened in real life?
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Was ancient Greek misogyny used as a precedent by 18th and 19th century thinkers to justify their own prejudice?
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