/u/Vladith's posts in /r/askhistorians
I've read that it was incredibly normal for brides to be pregnant in the 18th century, but in Pride and Prejudice a couple's implied sexual contact prior to their marriage is a huge scandal. Is this indicative of a moral class divide, or were 18th century values just not representative of reality?
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Were slaves in early medieval England typically captured from abroad, or enslaved native-born Anglo-Saxons? How did this compare with slavery in Viking-age Scandinavia?
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Why did German culture in the United States become so much less visible than Irish or Italian culture? Was it really all because of the World Wars?
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What was communication like in the 11th century Norse sphere? Would an Icelandic farmer have any knowledge or interest in the current king of Norway or the Norman conquest of England?
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I have heard that the current, bizarre borders of Azerbaijan and Armenia were a deliberate attempt by the Stalin administration to destabilize the Caucasus and increase the need for Russian involvement. Is there any truth to this?
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Greeks and Romans were at war with successive Persian Empire for more than a thousand years. Did the belligerents view these wars as part of a continuous struggle? Would Byzantine, Sassanian, or later Roman writers bring up imagery of Carrhae or Thermopylae in their wartime rhetoric centuries later?
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