/u/WAGRAMWAGRAM's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why was France still a relatively rural country compared to Germany or the UK at the end of the 19th century?
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Why no European kingdoms became a "Gunpowder Empire" ,a power that conquers its neighbors thanks to an early adoption of gunpowder weapons?
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Why did some Eastern Bloc regimes degenerated into a cult of personality (Romania, Albania, Yugoslavia) when others remained "bureaucratic dictatorships"?
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Would the Qin dynasty's soldiers that fought and lost at the battle of Julu be same that partake in the Qin wars of unification or would they be newly recruited troops ?
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What made the French army weaker than the Spanish army during the Italian Wars ? It seems like it lost most of the major battles.
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In his "History of the Franks" ,Gregory of Tours called the (Eastern) Roman Empire the "Republic". What was the meaning of "Republic" at the time?
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Why was there a trend in ancient Chinese history to blame the fall of a dynasty on the emperor's concubine ?
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How was the Kingdom of Jerusalem able to mobilize bigger armies than European kingdoms when it was many times smaller?
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According to Wikipedia Conrad von Hötzendorf was once considered a good general by WW1 historians but he is now considered "a failure" .What caused this change in opinion? And is he really considered as bad as Wikipedia tells us ,since this extract lack a citation?
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