/u/Xxxn00bpwnR69xxX's posts in /r/AskHistorians
If the ability to strike coinage in pre-industrial societies was reserved for the crown, then how did currency trickle its way down to the lower classes?
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I often hear the claim that the borders of the modern Middle East were arbitrarily carved up by western powers with no regard for the people living there. Is this true or is this some form of Anti-Zionist dogwhistle?
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Why did the crown of Castile agree to outfit the obvious crackpot Christopher Columbus with the resources for an expedition?
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