/u/bitparity's posts in /r/askhistorians
Do we have a rough idea of the economic power of the Sassanid Empire to the Roman Empire during their respective contemporary existence? (200-600 CE)
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How accurate is the depiction of King David of Israel wearing a white tunic, belt and cape? Is his (or his culture's) garb actually written about in the bible, would the bible sources be accurate on this, or is his commonly depicted garb a later anachronism?
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Given Charlemagne's position as the founder of western europe, why has he seemed to have faded from popular (though obviously not historical) consciousness?
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Do historians view the wielding of violence by pre-modern societies as an aberration or an inevitability?
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Why do the maps in the aftermath of Romulus Augustulus' deposition show Odoacer and Theodoric's kingdoms as separate from the Roman Empire rather than with it, when they both acknowledged suzerainty to the Eastern Emperor?
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Are there other cultures that have a long tradition of personal names appropriated from languages other than the ones primarily spoken by that culture?
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