/u/byzantine_meme's posts in /r/askhistorians
In the 19th century the British Empire shifted from mercantilism to free trade. Does this mean that Europeans in other countries, or Americans, could trade directly with India even though it was a British colony?
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During the spice trade and wars of colonialism, why were Indonesian spices not cultivated in the Caribbean or Brazil?
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Was the Holy Roman Empire called the Holy Roman Empire by its rivals? Did the Protestant alliance in the 30 Years' War, or the Ottomans, call it the Holy Roman Empire?
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During the Spanish Empire, were Northern and Eastern Europeans considered "less European" than Spaniards?
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How did Nazi Germany perceive Joseph Stalin's opposition to Leon Trotsky? Did they mention Trotsky in antisemitic propaganda?
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In the 19th century, to what extent did British authors publish in America, and American authors publish in Britain?
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