/u/carmelos96's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why did Diocletian and his successors establish an early kind of "serfdom" in the Late Roman Empire and practically make social mobility impossible? Were they obliged to do so in order to maintain the state working?
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Was Ancient Egypt a really egalitarian society (in terms of civil rights between men and women) as it is often said, or is it an exaggeration?
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Has any Roman emperor ever taken into consideration a political-military alliance with India against Persia?
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