/u/conbutt's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Why did the Spanish call it “Reconquista” when the Christians before Islam were Visigoths who were Germanic in origin?
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I've forgot where I heard this but someone told me the reason the Ottomans conquered Byzantium territory easily was because the common people hated the new Byzantine policies of being more subservient to the Western Church and thought the Ottomans would be better overlords. Is this true?
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The Ottomans have been using Akinci and Crimean Tartar cavalry during the 16th century at their peak, and well into the 17th century in an age of gunpowder dominance. Why were they kept around?
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How true is the claim that most of Western Europe looked down on archery as a “cowardly way” to fight
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