/u/conbutt's posts in /r/askhistorians
Despite ruling a vast Empire for nearly six centuries, there seems to be little trace of Ottomanism in many of their former territories. Did the Ottomans simply not have a policy of “spreading” Ottoman identity to their subjects?
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Reading wikipedia on Ottoman Economy, I came upon a description calling it “labor scarce, land rich, capital poor.” What did this mean?
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Why were the Turkic peoples so prevalent as mercenaries and slave soldiers in the Medieval Middle East?
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How did early Islamic Caliphates such as the Umayyads and Abbasids view ancient Mesapotamian powers such as Babylon, as well as the ancient Persian empires?
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