/u/grapp's posts in /r/AskHistorians
In school I was told that in 1700s most English small tenant farmers were turned off their old plots so the gentry could manage agriculture directly with modern methods. How come the farm land I see around me today seems to be owned and run by middle class people, rather than poor tenants or gentry?
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In medieval Europe how common/uncommon was it for peasants to kill small animals (birds, rodents, stray cats/dogs, etc) to get extra meat?
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Was Roman Emperor Elagabalus a transsexual? Or did the elites in Rome invent that reputation to tarnish him?
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I once saw a Newcastle comedian (I forget who) complian about the how southerners mistake his accent for Scottish when historically his people would have been on the front line against Scotland. did how close to the border you lived have any bearing on if you took part in wars with the Scottish?
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In Europe, Between the fall of Rome and the present, when did it become the case that most of an aristocrat's sevents would be paid free people instead of slaves? When did it come the case that all of them would be?
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A tour guide at Stafford Castle once told me that when Edward III created the Order of the Garter he was at least in part inspired by & trying to emulate King Arthur's "the Knights of the round table". Is there any truth to that?
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In the 19th century would the Plains Indians have had the technical ability to do maintenance on the rifles they had, or were they reliant on gun smiths in more settled places for that?
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60 years ago Was there more of a class devide between high up in the Labour Party and high up in the Conservative party, than there genrally is today?
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