/u/grapp's posts in /r/AskHistorians
I've seen a number of films and TV shows that depict southern slave children being used a playmates for their master's white children. Was that really common?
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someone once told me that even if the Romans had gun powder they couldn't have made cannon because there mental was so poor that they would just exploded if they tried. is it true that roman mental was much lower quality than what they had in the renaissance?
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how often did the Hun Horde actually up camp and move somewhere else? was it like a daily thing or did they stay in one place for months at a time?
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in AD1000 did the Saxons still have a sense of Saxon identity and Germanic origin or by that point would they have just thought of them selves as totally English?
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Suppose I visited Carthage in about 187BC, what (if any) signs would I see that the Empire was on the verge of collapsing or being destroyed by Rome?
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Did the Vikings (circa AD900) accept the Greek model of the Cosmos (IE the earth being spherical with the sun, moon, stars and planets revolving round it)?
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suppose I dropped you in constantinople in 659 and then in 1167, what differences would you expect to see?
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Rome got so large because the aristocrats in Rome were driving all the regular farmers off their land so they could set up slave run estates, all the displaced farmers went to the city. do we know whether or not the same thing was going on in Carthage's empire before Rome destroyed it?
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