/u/grapp's posts in /r/AskHistorians
In the 19th century why did foreign heads of state (like the emperor of Japan or the king of thailand for instance) start adopting European dress?
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can you give an example of a (well known) philosopher and/or scientist who you think was likely an atheist or agnostic, but who paid lip service to religion for the sake of not challenging their society's expectations and/or laws?
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Were the crafts men in Egyptian cities (circa 1000BC) independent businessmen, or did the work for the state/Pharaoh in some way?
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There's scene in the The Pacific (HBO show about American military activities in The Pacific in WW2) where some America soldiers gun down an unarmed & wounded Japanese solider they find wondering around after a battle. Is there any reason to believe that sort of thing was at all common?
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I watched an interview with Richard Wolff, he said the kind of economic imbalances that cause recessions, didn't exist in the middle ages, & before, because kings & lords had much more control over the production of goods, than capitalist era governments do. Would you agree or disagree with that?
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did many the allied pilots who drop bombs on civilian targets in WW2 express any guilt about having done it at the time?
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how long after 1066 was it before most "English" landed gentry could truthfully claim to have grown up speaking English rather than French?
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