/u/grapp's posts in /r/AskHistorians
I've been told (anecdotally) more than once that epicureanism had an up-shoot in popularity in the third century because the turmoil in the roman Empire made actively engaging in politics (something epicureanism discourages) seem pointless or even actively dangerous. much truth to that?
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I'm given to understand around a million people lived in Rome 1720 years. How many people lived in Ctesiphon, the capital of the Sasanian Empire, at the same point in history?
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In the middle of my home There's a statue of a WW1 solider, with a plaque listing the town's war dead. When memorials like that were erected around 1920, were they meant to seem tragic/melancholy (as we tend to view them) or triumphant?
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Imagine a Native American tribe living around where Eastern Washington is now in 1717. Even though the area hadn’t been colonised yet what effect (if any) would the presents of Europeans on the continent have on them? Could you tell them from a tribe in the same area in 1414?
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In Egypt circa 75BC (IE towards the end of the ptolemaic era) would the most common drink have been native made beer or Greek/Roman wine?
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I'm having trouble finding an old thread in which someone gave a relatively detailed (for Reddit) history of how North Korea became a totalitarian state, can anybody recall what it was called or link me there?
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Before World War 2 you found Jews in rural areas throughout Europe, in the British isles and the United States they're fairly focused only in urban areas like New York or London. Why was/is that the case?
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