/u/grapp's posts in /r/AskHistorians
how come in the early middle ages (lets say AD790 if that's too vague) risen bread was staple food in Europe and near east but not in north east Asia? and transversely how come rice wasn't a staple in Europe?
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imagine a rich Roman estate in italy in AD 240, imagine a similar Roman estate in 240 BCE. How (if in any way) would they likely look different?
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I once read a time travel story partly set in 1250 BC Africa. There’s a bit in it where a man from Gambia encounters some Cape San, he concludes they're primitive because they don't have any domestic plants or animals. Would people in West Africa have had domestic plants or animals that far back?
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I remember once being told that in the Middle Ages and before young children were very just given diapers/loincloths and rapped in blankets when it was cold because the cost of colth made it too expensive to give fitted clothes to someone who'd grow out of them so fast. Is that at all true?
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